Friday, January 28, 2011

The One Who Is Two

Surely you have heard about the administration of God’s grace that was given to me for you, that is, the mystery made known to me by revelation, as I have already written briefly. In reading this, then, you will be able to understand my insight into the mystery of Christ, which was not made known to people in other generations as it has now been revealed by the Spirit to God’s holy apostles and prophets. This mystery is that through the gospel the Gentiles are heirs together with Israel, members together of one body, and sharers together in the promise in Christ Jesus. -Ephesians 3:2-6

Bilateral Ecclesiology and the Gentiles Series

I have to admit, in examining my understanding of non-Jews vs. Jewish distinction in the Messianic community, I hit speed bumps. The Apostolic Scriptures can seem pretty ambiguous as to whether or not Gentiles and Jews who have come to faith in the Jewish Messiah remain two separate things or, based on Ephesians 3:2-6 among other verses, we have become "one new man". The latter would be the argument, both of the traditional church and of the One Law movement within the Messianic realm, but it strikes a rather sour chord with those Jews who believe that, to be Jews in Messianism, they must retain a specific cultural and ceremonial distinction from their Gentile Christian brothers and sisters.

Ephesians 2:12-13 says:
...remember that at that time you were separate from Christ, excluded from citizenship in Israel and foreigners to the covenants of the promise, without hope and without God in the world. But now in Christ Jesus you who once were far away have been brought near by the blood of Christ.
This seems to say that both Gentile Christians and Messianic Jews are citizens, as well as co-heirs in Israel. Usually, if you are made a naturalized citizen of a nation in which you were not born, once citizenship is conferred, you have the same rights and responsibilities as any citizen born in that country. That again, is the rationalization both for the Christian church and One Law movements in saying that they are "Israel". The church says they're "Israel" and have taken the place of the Jews, and One Law says they are "Israel" and are identical to Jews in form, function, and identity. The former says that the Jews have been "unchosen" and that God subsequently "chose" the church. The latter says that God created a new, really big bucket called "chosen" and dumped all Jews and Messianic Gentiles into the bucket so that they're all the same anyway.

But is that what really happened?

I have to admit, when I reviewed an article written by Nazarene Pastor Jirair Tashjian called Did Christ Abolish the Law?, he used scripture to represent his position reasonably well (not that I agree and you can see my review for the details).

Then, in my review, I said the following, which momentarily surprised me as I realized the implications of my statement:
Yes, Paul said neither Jew nor Greek, but he also said neither male nor female (Galatians 3:28) and the last time I looked at my wife, I noticed that we were different in form, function, and role…yet we are “one flesh” (Matthew 19:5-6).
In Ephesians 2:15, it says Yeshua's (Jesus's) purpose was to create in himself one new humanity out of the two, which really bothers me. It seems to very much support the supersessionist position of the church and the position of One Law in joining Jews and Gentile Messianics as one unified and amorphous object, rather than two distinct objects encased in a single container (black and white sheep in a flock). How can this be reconciled? Is the Bilateral Ecclesiology faction of Messianic Judaism in error? What can they say to get past what Paul has recorded?
That is why a man leaves his father and mother and is united to his wife, and they become one flesh. -Genesis 2:24
“It was because your hearts were hard that Moses wrote you this law,” Jesus replied. “But at the beginning of creation God ‘made them male and female.’ ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh.’ So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.” -Mark 10:5-9
So in Christ Jesus you are all children of God through faith, for all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ. There is neither Jew nor Gentile, neither slave nor free, nor is there male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus. -Galatians 3:26-28
Follow the logic here.

An individual man and an individual woman are made into "one flesh". This is what happened "in the beginning" and it is confirmed by Yeshua in his teaching on divorce and marriage. Paul writes that there is no Jew or Greek and no male or female. But does a man and a woman really become one, homogeneous, androgynous being?

No, of course not. Anyone who is married knows that a husband and wife remain very much individual, distinct human beings from one another. They take on a singularity of purpose in a family, especially as parents, and they surrender some of their individual freedoms for the sake of the relationship and both must work to nurture and grow the relationship, but they don't surrender everything about themselves.

In other words "one flesh" isn't literal in an absolute sense. It describes a special sense of intimacy (in a marital relationship, this includes physical intimacy), but they don't morph into one, new flesh, leaving everything about who they once were behind. In fact, it's everything that they are as individuals that each marital partner "brings to the table", so to speak, that makes the marriage strong and thriving. And as most married people know, we don't marry our opposite sex clones.

Now let's take all that and apply it to "one new man". I'm going to assume (yes, this is my interpretation) that we can compare the "one flesh" and "one man" analogies. I'm going to pretend that we can look at them as functioning in pretty much the same way. If two different human beings can be "one flesh" (in purpose) in a family and yet retain their individual forms, functions, and roles, why can't Jews and Gentiles as "one man" also retain their individual forms, functions, and roles?

See where I'm going?

I'm not about to attempt to expand this metaphor into every practice and procedure used in Christian vs. Messianic worship at the moment (so this blog post doesn't become 20 pages long). I just want to show how it's possible, based on scripture, for Christians and (Messianic) Jews to be "one new man" and still be two separate and distinct entities. The "container" (whether marriage or the Messianic "flock") does change something about the individuals within the container, but it doesn't alter them or change them into something completely different on a fundamental, behavioral, and structural level. Married men are still men and married woman are still women. Messianic Gentile disciples are still Gentile and Messianic Jewish disciples are still Jewish.

Thoughts?

The road is long and often, we travel in the dark, ignoring the light of the world. Look for the lamp who lights your path or you may become lost in the dark forever.

"A Jew never gives up. We're here to bring Mashiach, we will settle for nothing less." -Harav Yitzchak Ginsburgh

35 comments:

Gene Shlomovich said...

"Married men are still men and married woman are still women. Messianic Gentile disciples are still Gentile and Messianic Jewish disciples are still Jewish."

Some folks will object by saying that married men and women, though different, do not live in separate houses, so why should Jews and Gentles live in separate houses? Well, that analogy is flawed because it depends solely on what one considers a "house". If one's idea of a house is a simplistic "congregation meeting in the same building", then one might as well disenfranchise all those millions of varied congregations around the world which do not all meet in a one gigantic place to house them all.

But I propose a different analogy: the real house is our body (a "temple" of G-d"). Men and women have separate bodies and therefore separate houses. Yes, they may dwell side-by-side and work for the common good of the family, and they even visit and are intimate with each other when they both agree (if you know what I mean!), but they are still distinct and separate. So is with Jews and Gentiles.

Gene Shlomovich said...

Hey, may be this is what the real "Two-House" theology should be?:)

James said...

Wow! A comment. I thought the Internet was broken or something. ;-)

Like I said in the blog post, I'm not sure how everything would operationalize and how far the analogy can be taken. I'm using more than a little slight of hand putting the two concepts together and, as far as my limited awareness is concerned, I don't know that this comparison was ever made before.

On the other hand, the "one flesh" and "one man" concepts seem to be too related to ignore. Anyway, I felt like "going for it".

Technically speaking, the "body of Messiah" is the worldwide collection of everyone who believes in Yeshua (Jesus), so I suppose you could say that we live in one, really big house. On the other hand, if we are all united in the Messiah, we should feel free to gather together for prayer and worship. You've said yourself that I would be welcome in your synagogue, so it's not like there's a "Gentiles not allowed" sign on your door. Some Gentiles could effectively worship long-term in a synagogue setting as long as they agreed to the "conditions", but then that's true, even if I were to worship at the local Chabad with my wife.

All that said, I still think Bilateral Ecclesiology (BE) has a long way to go as a concept before it can effectively be launched as a workable process, though there's nothing really stopping a group of Messianic Jews from starting their own synagogue and taking it from there.

I'm hoping for some other input (or your continued input, Gene) on how far to take the "one flesh/one man" analogy. I'm "sensing" at least more more part to this blog and maybe more.

James said...

Hey, may be this is what the real "Two-House" theology should be?:)

Smart arse.

Dan Benzvi said...

Since the inventor of BE is Mark Kinzer, not Gene shlomovich. Let's see what Kinzer have to say on the subject. Read pages 162 and 170 in his book and try to analize it.

I will be back, maybe before the Shabbat to show how absured Kinzers explanation is.

James said...

I'm at work right now and there won't be enough time for me to review those pages of Kinzer's book before Shabbat, so the soonest I'll be able to have a look will be Saturday night or Sunday morning. I look forward to your analysis, Dan.

Gene Shlomovich said...

"I will be back, maybe before the Shabbat to show how absured Kinzers explanation is."

This has got to be good. Can't wait!

Messiah's Way said...

Shalom James,

Shortly after entering the Messianic movement my wife and I were invited to visit many of the dozen or so congregations within driving distance of our home. So unlike most who transition to being Messianic, we got to see many different congregations before we even became a part of one. We noticed right away that the different groups were positioned along a continuum of "Jewishness". We even started placing them on a scale of one to ten where one represented the most orthodox of Jews and 10 representing the most charismatic of Christians. We would refer to one group as a "two" and another as a "four" on their way to becoming a "three", etc. We did not mean it in a judgmental way, it just helped to describe the difference between congregations.

But after spending ten years looking for that perfect point along the scale, I have come to a different conclusion. Instead of trying to decide if I should try to be more Jewish, I think it is more important to try to be more Godly. And clearly there is a difference. I have met many believers who exuded the presence of God but who wouldn't know a tzitzit from a football. On the other hand, I have met many believers who can recite every prayer of the siddur perfectly, but show no love of those around them. So which type would our master prefer that we be?

As you step away from your congregation and possibly the Messianic community, I hope you will seek out those in whom you can see the master regardless of where they fall on the continuum. And once you have been recharged, I pray that you will return as an example of someone who can still show the Spirit while teaching the Walk. And I hope that you will seek out interaction with those who strive to be the same.

May God Bless you in your search, Jeff.

James said...

Thank you, Jeff. That's one of the reasons I need to leave the Messianic movement. We have a tendency to focus on the details while leaving out the "big picture". Actually, it was while examing those details, that I came up with pretty much the same conclusion you describe.

I too believe that there are Godly people among a vast array of worship communities in the church and Messianic congregations. It's the person who embraces the Spirit of God and out of that Spirit, lives a life that pleases God and serves others who truly makes a difference.

James said...

Since the inventor of BE is Mark Kinzer, not Gene shlomovich. Let's see what Kinzer have to say on the subject. Read pages 162 and 170 in his book and try to analize it.

Page 162 seems to be Kinzer describing some comments of Terence Donaldson. The idea being presented is the dissonance between Paul's devotion as a Torah observant Jew of his day and how he instructed the Gentile Messianic communities to see themselves and Israel (which was apparently incompatible with his devotion to normative Judaism) is explained by the "fact" (well, suggestion, anyway) that Paul expected the Messiah to return really, really soon...maybe even within Paul's own lifetime. Supposedly, Paul didn't expect his model of establishing Gentile Messianic communities to have to hold up for 2000 years or more.

I'm not sure what this has to do with the topic of this particular blog post, but page 170 certainly does.

Kinzer, based on Barth and Johnson, uses Ephesians 2:15, 3:4-6, and 5:22-23 to make the same comparision between "one man" and "one flesh" I did in this blog (and I promise, I wasn't plagiarizing Kinzer...I didn't specifically remember the content of page 170 of PMJ at all).

By the way, I didn't mean this specific blog post to be the absolute and final "answer" to Bilateral Ecclesiology or to express my total support for everything Kinzer said in his PMJ book. I only wanted to present my own ideas, based on scripture, about how I thought it was possible for there to be merit for some of Kinzer's suggestions.

As I also tried to say, I think Kinzer and the ideas he presented in PMJ have a long way to go before they can be practically implemented across the spectrum of all Messianic and Christian worship communities everywhere...if they ever will be, this side of the Messiah's return.

Dan Benzvi said...

Hope everyone had a great Shabbat.

Beside other hazy theories Kinzer introduced in his book, since thes blog was written with marriage in mind I want to concentrate on that.

If gentile believers are not under divine obligation to obey the Torah and Jewish believers are under such obligation, than it is not difficult to conclude that the only working solution is BE along the lines Kinzer has drawn.
Kinzer notes that Donaldson recognizes that the same dillema confronted Paul. He writes:
"Thus according to Donaldson, Paul tried to combine two principles of community formation that were untimately incompatible. How could he made such a mistake?" (P. 162)

Kinzer explains that Donaldson answer to that dillema is that Paul never planned to form multigenerational communities because he expected the return of Yeshua to be very soon, which would draw the current age to a close. Kinzer aggrees with Donaldson when he interpret Paul's commitment to " an ethnically identified Israel, differentiated from the Gentiles in a traditional Torah-determined ways" (P. 162). Kinzer just thinks Donaldson failed to realize that Paul was hoping to plant Multigenerational Congregations, but in a BE configuration.

Kinzer wants to prove that this is Paul's perspective. Meaning that there is a parallel between the Ekklesia and Paul's teaching on Marriage in Eph. 5:22-33. Kinzer writes: " these verses focus on the love of the husband for his wife, the unity they are supposed to share as "one flesh," and the way this love and unity reflect both the teaching of Gen> 2:24 and its typological enbodiment in the relationship between Messiah and His ekklesia." (P. 170).

Kinzer references the work of Timothy Johnson who writes : "Man and woman submit to each other in respect and love and service, finding unity and peace not in false identification but in pluralistic unity. So should Jew and Greek celebrate their unity in service to each other, so that God's purpose might be fulfilled, :to unite all things in Him, things in heaven and things on earth" (P. 170).

So Kinzer takes Paul's model of marriage and finds support in it for his BE. Just as in marriage the male and female retain their distinctive genders yet are one, so in the ekllesia the Jewish and gentile believers retain their distinctive ethnicities and communal culture.

But there is one major difference, however, for Kinzer, the marriage model only works as a description of his BE if the husband and wife reside in separate houses!

More in the next comment...

Dan Benzvi said...

Continue...

You see, to the contrary, Paul's analogy between the oneness of husband and wife and the unity of jew and gentile within the body of messiah presupposes living together, not separate. The terminology of "one flesh" points to the most intimate of human relations in marriage. It parallels the "One new man" in Eph. 2. so Kinzer wants to fit this bold statement of Paul to his BE and he accepts Barth's rendition of this key text: "{this was} to make peace by creating in his (Yeshua;s) person a single new man out of the two" (P> 169). from this Kinzer adds his emphsis: "This implies that 'the two' may remain in the midst of the 'one'" (P.169).

But what kinzer fails to mention, is the means (given in the beginning of Eph. 2:15) that accomplishes this unity: " by abolishing in His flesh the enmity, which is the Law of commandments contained in ordinances, so that in Himself He might make the two into one new man, thus establishinf peace...".

The only way such "oneness" can be accomplished is through abolishing "the law of commandments contained in ordinences" (this is for another discussion).

so rather than fitting Paul's teaching, Kinzer's BE actually destroys Paul's use of Marriage as an analogy to the unity of Jew and Gentile within the ekllesia, for it would require husband and wife to reside in "equal but separate" domains.

There are other bizarre analogies Kinzer makes, but the do not refer to marriage.

Gene Shlomovich said...

"The only way such "oneness" can be accomplished is through abolishing "the law of commandments contained in ordinences" (this is for another discussion)."

Let me translate what Dan is trying to say with the above: the Torah is still valid, but only as a "Biblical Torah" (a.k.a. "Sola Scriptura"), meaning it's not valid as Jews interpret and practice it - Yeshua came to do away with that, according to many One-Law adherents. The only way oneness with Gentiles can be achieved, as Tim Hegg interprets it and as his devotees nod approvingly, is by doing away with the Jewish interpretation and practice of Torah (because yhe OL fellas see it as THE obstacle to "oneness").

Dan, did I get this right?

Dan Benzvi said...

As usual, Gene, you are majoring in the minors.

The analogy in here is to Marriage, that is why I wrote it is another discussion. either you respond to the analogy, or write ablog and attack me on the Torah, will you?

You will lose that argument too...

James said...

I think Kinzer does what most scholars (as well as the rest of us) do when they're trying to prove a point. They cite those sources and authorities which agree with or can be used to prove that point. I'm as guilty of this as everyone else.

However, Ephesians 2:11-22 remains a difficult text because, on the surface, it really does seem to say that Yeshua removed the barrier between Jews and believing Gentiles by setting aside in his flesh the law with its commands and regulations. I can see where the church gets from this, the idea that the law was removed and that Jews and believing Gentiles were somehow joined together in a way that didn't exist before, particularly when you add in the marriage metaphors.

So from this, and all of the other scriptures cited thus far, as well as various scholarly opinions, we each nurse our own particular interpretations. We have a good example of this in an article I recently reviewed.

We have a lot of differing opinions and each person or group is very sincere when presenting their opinions and believing that their arguments are compelling. Each person or group is equally dismayed when the opposing individals or groups "don't seem to get it".

In many ways, we have as much faith in our own interpretations of these scriptures as we have in God.

Gene Shlomovich said...

"write ablog and attack me on the Torah, will you?"

And dedicate a whole blog post to Dan Benzvi and his dogma? No, thanks.

Dan Benzvi said...

"And dedicate a whole blog post to Dan Benzvi and his dogma? No, thanks."

So why don't you rebut what i had to say and stop the games?

Dan Benzvi said...

"I think Kinzer does what most scholars (as well as the rest of us) do when they're trying to prove a point. They cite those sources and authorities which agree with or can be used to prove that point. I'm as guilty of this as everyone else."

You mean like this?: In an attempt to prove that Paul teaches BE in Gal. 2, Kinzer brings forth what he considers "sabstantial proof" from mosaics unearthed in the 5th century Christian Church (pp. 163-64). The mosaic details 2 female figures that represent Peter's mission to the Jews and Paul's mission to the Gentiles. Does Kinzer really believe that a mosaic floor of the church of St. Sabina, constructed nearly 400 years after the writing of Galatians, "makes clear that Gal. 2 was understood as implying more than just the establishment of 2 missions" (p. 164)? it is extreamly anachronistic to think that the view of one Christian Church in the 5th century gives us substantial foundation for exegeting paul message to the Galatians.

This is not scholarship, this is pooling the wool over the eyes.

James said...

Does Kinzer really believe that a mosaic floor of the church of St. Sabina, constructed nearly 400 years after the writing of Galatians, "makes clear that Gal. 2 was understood as implying more than just the establishment of 2 missions" (p. 164)?

This is one of the parts of the Kinzer book which I found employed more than a little "slight-of-hand" in making its point.

Gene Shlomovich said...

"This is one of the parts of the Kinzer book which I found employed more than a little "slight-of-hand" in making its point."

No slight of hand, James. The difference here is that unlike most of the One-Law promoters who eschew Jewish and Christian historical and theological sources in favor of their own barely decade old One-Law "epiphany", Kinzer communicates his points and seeks support for them by engaging these sources head on. Which is what true scholars do.

Dan Benzvi said...

"No slight of hand, James. The difference here is that unlike most of the One-Law promoters who eschew Jewish and Christian historical and theological sources in favor of their own barely decade old One-Law "epiphany", Kinzer communicates his points and seeks support for them by engaging these sources head on. Which is what true scholars do."

Speaking of slight of hand...What did he just say?

Dan Benzvi said...

Gene, it is late in Florida, go to sleep, you are over your head here....

James said...

Gene, re-reading pages 163-4 of PMJ, it seems a bit of a stretch to conclude, based on the mosaic in question that, in Kinzer's own words, "Galatians 2 was understood as implying more than the establishment of two missions..." and instead is "...two distinct corporate entities joined in what should have been an indissoluble bond of love and mutual commitment."

I'm not saying it *can't* mean that, only that it seems to be a rather far fetched interpretation and certainly other viewpoints could have significance as well.

While Kinzer (as I recall from my review of his book) had many worthy points to make in support of his position, I don't think that literally *everything* he said was necessarily "dead on" target.

James said...

I just read (and commented on) Daniel's "Christian for Moses" blog post Circumcision and non-Jews. It most definitely applies to the general set of conversations we've been having here. Have a look.

Gene Shlomovich said...

I replied to that blog with the following:

Of course, there’s another passage that is hard to ignore when considering circumcision for Gentiles:

“Was a man already circumcised when he was called? He should not become uncircumcised. Was a man uncircumcised when he was called? He should not be circumcised.” (1 Corinthians 7:18).

That certainly puts a damper on those who imagine that even if G-d doesn’t require circumcision of Gentile believers then he must at least strongly desire it for them (e.g. “divine invitation”).

James said...

Just to put your mind at ease Gene, I'm not desiring a ritual circumcision as a Gentile disciple of the Jewish Messiah. First of all, like most Americians, I had a circumcision as a newborn. Also, I believe the Abrahamic covenant is specifically for the Jews (and I occasionally get static for this from someone in my own congregation). Of course, it creates a mess when we ask ourselves if non-Jewish Messianic disciples will be able to sacrifice and eat of the Passover in the days of the third Temple.

Dan Benzvi said...

"Also, I believe the Abrahamic covenant is specifically for the Jews"

And how so?

James said...

My understanding of the Abrahamic covenant is that it always specifically identified the Children of Israel and was not subsequently passed on to the Gentile Messianic disciples. Paul makes it very plan in in Galatians 5:2 that the Gentile disciples were *not* to be circumcized, using the term as a method of describing Gentile conversion to Judaism.

Virtually no modern Christian practice supports an eighth day circumcision of Christian boys and so, both the ancient and modern understanding of the brit milah, is that it is a covenant marker exclusive to Judaism.

Dan Benzvi said...

I am not speaking on circumcision (although we can discuss it if you want). I am asking about the Abrahamic covenant. What do you don't understand in: "...And in you all the family of the earth will be blessed?"

James said...

All the families of the earth will be blessed by Abraham's seed (singular) meaning the Messiah.

Dan Benzvi said...

So how can the Abrahanic covenant be specifically for Jews?

James said...

Because it's an unconditional covenant that promises the Land of Israel to Abraham and his descendents forever, specifically the offspring of Isaac & Jacob...the Children of Israel (see Genesis 12:1-3 and 15:18-31).

Dan Benzvi said...

You are avoiding my question.
Does the Abrahamic covenant speak of other people other than the Jews?

James said...

I'm not avoiding your question. I'm answering in as straightforward manner as I can. When Genesis 22:18 says and all mankind will be blessed by your seed, it's speaking of the Messiah, but it doesn't mean all mankind has a slice of Israel promised to them. Israel is the land promised to the Children of Israel (and only the Children of Israel) by God. The nations get the rest of the world.

Dan, why don't you just present your point rather than asking me the same question over and over again everytime I don't give you an answer you don't like?

Dan Benzvi said...

Sorry, I thought you understood that the blessings to the nations can only come through Israel, the covenants of promise, the Commonwealth. The Abrahamic covenant encompased all nations, that is what "grafted in" means.